V. Genetics questions

Genetic questions

Genetics questions

There are a total of 44 genetics questions, which are important content-oriented in the summary part of this chapter. Click the ‘Answer’ button to see the corresponding answers and explanations, and click the ‘Go back’ button to slove the next questions.

GENETICS TEST 1

1 / 20

A cell contains 32 sister chromatids at metaphase I. How many chromosomes can be shown in one daughter cell after finishing meiosis II completely?

2 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a condition of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

3 / 20

In a Hardy-Weinberg population there are two alleles, the dominant allele and the recessive allele. If the frequency of the dominant allele is 0.6, what percentage of dominant phenotype is present in this population?

4 / 20

A woman has normal vision but her father has color blindness. If she has her children with a normal man, what is the percentage likelihood that a male child would have color blindness?

5 / 20

In Griffith’s experiment, when he inducted living S cells into a mouse, the mouse died, and when he injected living R cells into a mouse, the mouse survived. However, when he injected a mixture of heat-killed S cells and living R cells into a mouse, the mouse died. What did he find?

6 / 20

Which of the following statements is a FALSE statement?

7 / 20

Which of the following does NOT apply to Okazaki fragments during DNA replication?

8 / 20

All of the following factors are transcribed from DNA strands EXCEPT _____________.

9 / 20

If one protein in an eukaryotic cell contains 120 amino acids, overall how many numbers of DNA nucleotides are needed for codes of these amino acids?

10 / 20

Which of the following mutations is INCORRECTLY matched?

11 / 20

Which of the following gene technology is useful for amplifying an original double strand of DNA?

12 / 20

12. Which of the following statements about cell cycle is (are) true?

I. One chromosome consists of two sister chromatids from G2 of interphase to metaphase of mitosis.

II. Daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes after the completion of meiosis.

III. The longest phage of cell life is G1 phase.
IV. During mitosis, pairs of homologous chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate.

13 / 20

One organism has a chromosome number of 2n = 8. Which of the following about this organism is  FALSE?

14 / 20

In a hypothetical population of 100 people, dominant homozygotes are 64 and heterozygotes are 32. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?

15 / 20

How many different types of gametes can be formed from the genotype, AaBBCcDdEE?

16 / 20

Choose all possibilities that the children would be normal from their parents.

I. A male child from a Hemophiliac mother and normal father

II. A female child from a homozygous normal mother and color blind father

III. A male child from a mother who has sickle cell anemia disease and homozygous normal father

IV. A female child whose mother and father both have sickle cell anemia disease

17 / 20

Alleles for black fur on the X chromosome are not active after cell division. All of the following are true about this organism EXCEPT _______________.

18 / 20

Chromosomes do not separate during meiosis II. Which can be expected?

19 / 20

An organism contains 26% of guanine in DNA. What percentage of the nucleotides will be thymine?

20 / 20

Which of the following is true of spliceosomes?

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The average score is 13%

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GENETICS TEST 2

1 / 20

Which of the following mutations causes the most serious genetic disease?

2 / 20

During which phases are sister chromatids separated?

3 / 20

When do the greatest genetic exchange and combination happen between gametes?

4 / 20

A small group was isolated from the large population and lost genetic variation. Finally this small group became a different population from the origin population. This is called _____________.

5 / 20

A roan horse has a black and white coat from its black mother horse and white father horse. This is an example of _______________.

6 / 20

Which of the following is an IMPOSSIBLE blood type of a child from a B blood typed mother and A blood typed father?

7 / 20

Which of the following about changing chromosomal structures is correctly matched?

8 / 20

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about mitotic cell division?

9 / 20

Assessment of DNA synthesis occurs at _____________ checkpoint.

10 / 20

Which of the following is an INCORRECTLY matched pair?

11 / 20

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

12 / 20

Klinefelter Syndrome is _______________.

13 / 20

Which of the following about enzymes is an INCORRECTLY matched pair?

14 / 20

Which of the following is the correct order?

15 / 20

If the sequence of t-RNA anticodons has been determined to be ‘AUA GAU GUA’, what is the corresponding base sequence of DNA from this strand? (DNA sequence is the same direction as the sequence of t-RNA anticodons.)

16 / 20

Which of the following is INCORECTLY matched?

17 / 20

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement?

18 / 20

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

19 / 20

39. Which of the following statements about testcross is (are) true?

I. This method is used for determining the phenotype of a parent organism.

II. Recessive homozygotes cross with the dominant phenotype of a parent organism.

III. The result of all dominant phenotypes can say that the parents have homozygous type.

IV. The result of half dominant and half recessive phenotypes can say that that parents have heterozygous type.

20 / 20

A semiconservative model showed that a daughter strand has 12.5 % of conservative molecules from the parent strand. How many times has the daughter strand been duplicated?

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The average score is 60%

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GENETICS TEST 3

1 / 4

Reducing three codons to two codons when tRNA matches with mRNA strands is called _______________.

2 / 4

What is the trait of inheritance in the following pedigree?

3 / 4

All statements are about ribosome EXCEPT _______________.

4 / 4

Which of the following statements about DNA structure is (are) true?

I. Pyrimidine has one nitrogenous ring and purine has two nitrogenous rings.

II. There are hydrogen bonds between adenine and cytosine.

III. Carbon sugars and nitrogen bases form the DNA backbone.

IV. Molecules containing A and T have a higher melting point than those containing G and C.

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