V. Genetics questions

Genetic questions

Genetics questions

This chapter contains 44 genetics questions covering key concepts from the chapter summary. Each test allows approximately 1 minute per question. When you finish, select “See Result” to view your score and review your answers. Incorrect answers are shown in red, correct answers in green, and explanations in blue.

GENETICS TEST 1

1 / 20

A cell has 32 chromatids at metaphase I. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell contain after meiosis II?

2 / 20

Which of the following is NOT a condition of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

3 / 20

In a Hardy–Weinberg population with two alleles and complete dominance, the dominant allele has a frequency of 0.6. What percentage of individuals is expected to show the dominant phenotype?

4 / 20

A woman has normal vision, but her father has X-linked recessive red-green color blindness. If she has children with a man with normal vision, what is the probability that a son will have color blindness?

5 / 20

In Griffith’s experiment, mice died after injection with live S bacteria but survived after injection with live R bacteria. Mice also died after injection with a mixture of heat-killed S bacteria and live R bacteria. Which conclusion was directly supported by this experiment?

6 / 20

Which statement is FALSE?

7 / 20

Which statement does NOT apply to Okazaki fragments during E. coli DNA replication?

8 / 20

Which of the following is NOT produced directly by transcription of DNA?

9 / 20

A protein contains 120 amino acids. How many nucleotides in one DNA coding strand encode these amino acids, excluding the stop codon and any introns?

10 / 20

Which mutation types are INCORRECTLY matched with their descriptions?

11 / 20

Which technique amplifies a double-stranded DNA sequence?

12 / 20

Which statements about the cell cycle are true?

I. One chromosome consists of two sister chromatids from G2 through metaphase of mitosis.

II. Normal daughter cells have half the original chromosome number after meiosis.

III. G1 is a growth phase that precedes DNA replication.

IV. During mitosis, homologous chromosome pairs line up together at the metaphase plate.

13 / 20

An organism has a diploid chromosome number of 2n = 8. Which statement is FALSE?

14 / 20

A population of 100 diploid individuals includes 64 dominant homozygotes and 32 heterozygotes at a two-allele locus. What is the frequency of the recessive allele?

15 / 20

Assuming independent assortment, how many genetically distinct gametes can an individual with genotype AaBBCcDdEE produce?

16 / 20

Which listed children are expected to be unaffected by the indicated recessive disorder?

I. A son of a mother with hemophilia and an unaffected father

II. A daughter of a homozygous unaffected mother and a father with red-green color blindness

III. A son of a mother with sickle-cell disease and a homozygous unaffected father

IV. A daughter whose parents both have sickle-cell disease

17 / 20

In a mammal with a typical XX or XY karyotype, an X-linked coat-color allele is silenced in a patch of fur by X inactivation. Which statement is FALSE?

18 / 20

If sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis II, which outcomes can occur after an abnormal gamete fuses with a normal gamete?

19 / 20

In double-stranded DNA, 26% of the nucleotides contain guanine. What percentage contain thymine?

20 / 20

Which of the following is true of spliceosomes?

Your score is

The average score is 57%

0%

GENETICS TEST 2

1 / 20

Which term most specifically describes a reading-frame shift caused by a one-nucleotide insertion or deletion in a coding sequence?

2 / 20

During which phases are sister chromatids separated?

3 / 20

During which phase does crossing over occur between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes?

4 / 20

A small group establishes a new population with only a subset of the original population’s genetic variation. What is this called?

5 / 20

In a hypothetical single-locus coat-color system, a heterozygote expresses both the black-hair allele and the white-hair allele distinctly, producing both black and white hairs. This is an example of _______________.

6 / 20

Under standard ABO inheritance, which blood type is impossible for a child of a mother with type B blood and a father with type A blood?

7 / 20

Which chromosome mutation is correctly matched with its description?

8 / 20

Which statement about the typical eukaryotic cell cycle is INCORRECT?

9 / 20

Which checkpoint verifies that DNA replication is complete before mitosis?

10 / 20

Which inheritance pattern is INCORRECTLY matched with its description or example?

11 / 20

Assuming complete dominance where applicable, which statement is FALSE?

12 / 20

Which description matches the typical karyotype in Klinefelter syndrome?

13 / 20

Which enzyme is INCORRECTLY matched with its function?

14 / 20

Which sequence describes the usual flow of information from a protein-coding gene to a phenotype?

15 / 20

Three tRNA anticodons are 3′‑AUA‑5′, 3′‑GAU‑5′, and 3′‑GUA‑5′, in translation order. Which DNA template sequence, written 3′→5′, corresponds to them?

16 / 20

Which description of a cell-cycle phase or checkpoint is INCORRECT?

17 / 20

Which statement about normal human cell division and reproduction is INCORRECT?

18 / 20

In Mendel’s pea plants, PP purple-flowered plants are crossed with pp white-flowered plants, and the F1 plants self-pollinate. Assuming complete dominance, which statement is INCORRECT?

19 / 20

Which statements about a Mendelian testcross are true?

I. A testcross determines the phenotype of an individual with an unknown genotype.

II. An individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive tester.

III. A homozygous dominant individual crossed with a homozygous recessive tester is expected to produce only dominant-phenotype offspring.

IV. A heterozygous individual crossed with a homozygous recessive tester is expected to produce a 1:1 dominant:recessive phenotypic ratio.

20 / 20

Starting with one double-stranded DNA molecule, how many rounds of semiconservative replication are needed for the two original strands to make up 12.5% of all DNA strands?

Your score is

The average score is 93%

0%

GENETICS TEST 3

1 / 4

Which statements about DNA structure are true?

I. Pyrimidines have one ring, and purines have two rings.

II. Adenine pairs with cytosine through hydrogen bonds in standard Watson–Crick DNA base pairing.

III. Sugars and nitrogenous bases form the DNA backbone.

IV. For DNA molecules of comparable length under the same conditions, AT-rich DNA generally has a higher melting temperature than GC-rich DNA.

2 / 4

During translation elongation, which statement about ribosomes is FALSE?

3 / 4

Assuming complete penetrance and no new mutations, which inheritance pattern best fits this pedigree?

4 / 4

Flexible pairing between the third base of an mRNA codon and the first base of a tRNA anticodon allows some tRNAs to recognize multiple codons. What is this called?

Your score is

The average score is 63%

0%